In all likelihood, YES!!! Originally Posted by Freedom42Are you sure?
I notice that nowhere in your bullshit did you say I was wrong... Originally Posted by WombRaiderThat doesn't mean you are correct. For instance: Tort law INCLUDES elements of statutes, some of which are codified from the common law and crafted from principles based upon common law, and sometimes statutes are USED in tort law to establish a standard of care and conduct, the violation of which establishes liability. On the other hand most tort law principles are from the common law. Which means for the most part in U.S. jurisprudence "tort laws" (which includes case law decisions for the most part with some statutory interpretation) from one state to the next are sufficient similar to have a pretty good idea what it will be, but any prudent lawyer would check a specific state's "tort laws" before offering advice to a client or potential client on the client's problem.
I haven't called anyone a name, that's not something you can say though. Originally Posted by dirty dogOh, I can say all day long I get called names. It really doesn't phase me, because I got over that sometime around the 3rd or 4th grade out at recess. Children do that often. I've just noticed on the Board, and in many other blogs, that some fools think a sufficient response to a substantive argument is to call someone a marginalizing, demeaning name in the mistaken belief that it will "prove" what the person posted is wrong, even though the "name-caller" doesn't have a clue about the person's background and experience on the topic, or even sufficient knowledge about the topic to respond (which is more than likely why they resort to the name-calling and accusations).
That doesn't mean you are correct. For instance: Tort law INCLUDES elements of statutes, some of which are codified from the common law and crafted from principles based upon common law, and sometimes statutes are USED in tort law to establish a standard of care and conduct, the violation of which establishes liability. On the other hand most tort law principles are from the common law. Which means for the most part in U.S. jurisprudence "tort laws" (which includes case law decisions for the most part with some statutory interpretation) from one state to the next are sufficient similar to have a pretty good idea what it will be, but any prudent lawyer would check a specific state's "tort laws" before offering advice to a client or potential client on the client's problem.The highlighted portion is exactly what I said a bunch of pages ago. Nice to see you finally catching up. In your exhaustive need to be correct. You can't just agree that a point I made was correct, you must drain it of all vestiges of life and then perform CPR and present it as your own argument pages later. Whatever. One of the first points I made was that statutes can differ from state to state. You went on some fucking bender only to arrive at that very point yourself.
That's the difference in you and a lawyer, who actually practices law. The lawyer can be held accountable for "advice" or "opinions' he or she gives. You can't, because everyone knows you are full of shit, and even ashamed of being UC.
Your generalized statements do not indicate you have any special knowledge based on legal education or training. It just proves you eat Cracker Jacks.
I also noticed you didn't answer my question about your law school education.
But UC's standards say you are an IGNORAMUS.
Just what are "Civil wrongful death civil suits'? Originally Posted by LexusLover
Requires repeating to stay on point.
"Plumhoff v. Rickard, 572 U.S. ___ (2014)
"A claim that law-enforcement officers used excessive force to effect a seizure is governed by the Fourth Amendment’s “reasonableness” standard. See Graham v. Connor, 490 U. S. 386 (1989); Tennessee v. Garner, 471 U. S. 1 (1985). In Graham, we held that determining the objective reasonableness of a particular seizure under the Fourth Amendment “requires a careful balancing of the nature and quality of the intrusion on the individual’s Fourth Amendment interests against the countervailing governmental interests at stake.” 490 U. S., at 396 (internal quotation marks omitted). The inquiry requires analyzing the totality of the circumstances. See ibid.
"We analyze this question from the perspective “of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with the 20/20 vision of hindsight.” Ibid. We thus “allo[w] for the fact that police officers are often forced to make split-second judgments—in circumstances that are tense, uncertain, and rapidly evolving—about the amount of force that is necessary in a particular situation.” Id., at 396–397." Originally Posted by LexusLover
https://www.themarshallproject.org/2...-scott-running
Why would a man who has been stopped on a routine traffic violation suddenly run from the scene. What did he fear so much that would compell hi, to take such an action.
Read the link. It's not that long, and gives a good insight into the mentality of men who have a justified fear of any contact with a law enforcement officer.
You might not agree with it, but these arcane laws have resulted in the death of a man, and the ruination of the life of a Police Officer. Originally Posted by Jackie S
Point!
"Plumhoff v. Rickard, 572 U.S. ___ (2014)
"A claim that law-enforcement officers used excessive force to effect a seizure is governed by the Fourth Amendment’s “reasonableness” standard. See Graham v. Connor, 490 U. S. 386 (1989); Tennessee v. Garner, 471 U. S. 1 (1985). In Graham, we held that determining the objective reasonableness of a particular seizure under the Fourth Amendment “requires a careful balancing of the nature and quality of the intrusion on the individual’s Fourth Amendment interests against the countervailing governmental interests at stake.” 490 U. S., at 396 (internal quotation marks omitted). The inquiry requires analyzing the totality of the circumstances. See ibid.
"We analyze this question from the perspective “of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with the 20/20 vision of hindsight.” Ibid. We thus “allo[w] for the fact that police officers are often forced to make split-second judgments—in circumstances that are tense, uncertain, and rapidly evolving—about the amount of force that is necessary in a particular situation.” Id., at 396–397."
Yours is bile. Originally Posted by LexusLover
What point? Originally Posted by Yssup RiderThe "Yours is bile" point. It applies to you as well.
So Slager wouldn't have shot him if he (Scott) didn't run? Originally Posted by andymarksman
In all likelihood, YES!!! Originally Posted by Freedom42
Are you sure? Originally Posted by andymarksmanYes, I'm 100% positive that in all likelihood Scott would NOT have Ben shot by Slager if he hadn't run away.
Yes, I'm 100% positive that in all likelihood Scott would NOT have Ben shot by Slager if he hadn't run away.So running AWAY is an offense worthy of death?
Am I 100% certain that he wouldn't have been shot? No, but it is way above 99%, hence the use of "in all likelihood".
Do you have any reason to believe that there is even a 1% chance that Scott would have been shot if he stayed in the car as he was told at least twice? If so, please provide it, if not, what is your point? Originally Posted by Freedom42