. . . I suspect the legislative history doesn't disclose an intent for the statute to be used in the manner seemingly presented . . .
Originally Posted by LexusLover
If the Congress didn't reveal
this intent, meaning the one in which the current case presents, what WAS the expressed reason for passing the law? Just off the top of my head I am thinking labor. "Sex WORKERS".
This is somewhat over my head, but I definitely appreciate the input. Especially the research Lex. I have to break out my "Legal Dictionary" (Google) to put it in my terms.
I have to read and reread back and forth to put it together. Honestly I did not think this would go that far.