Just so you know, entrapment is 100% bnonafide legal in the US.
Originally Posted by Victoria of Houston
No it isn't. Cases have been reversed when able to prove entrapment.
Sorrells v. United States, 287
U.S. 435
Sherman v. United States ,356
U.S. 369
There is a lot of confusion in this community about what constitutes Entrapment
1.
entrapment is constituted by a law enforcement agent inducing a person to commit an offense that the person would otherwise have been unlikely to commit...
2. there is no entrapment where a person is ready and willing to break the law and the Government agents merely provide what appears to be a favorable opportunity for the person to commit the crime.
Entrapment if three conditions are fulfilled:
- First, the idea for committing the crime came from the government agents and not from the person accused of the crime.
- Second, the government agents then persuaded or talked the person into committing the crime. Simply giving him the opportunity to commit the crime is not the same as persuading him to commit the crime.
- And third, the person was not ready and willing to commit the crime before the government agents spoke with him.
Just another educational benefit of ECCIE...