Let me help. The original question was:If they're a Democrat: YES.
Are you inferring that any candidate whose ancestors were slave holders over 100 years ago are unfit to serve? Originally Posted by reddog1951
Seems to be the pot calling the kettle black. I welcome an intelligent and respectful discussion, yet so far only receive disrespectful and propagandized replies. Why is that? Originally Posted by reddog1951You are incapable of accepting anything "your opinion" doesnt agree with!
Another intelligent, carefully thought out reply that does not address the questions posed. Perhaps the student learned from the master.You will only get a few objective answers from the Trump lovers and the rest will just be stupid shit and insults.
So another question: By implying that an ancestor held slaves is a reason to vote against someone holding office, does that by logical extension also imply that ancestors of slave holders should not be allowed to have the right to vote? Originally Posted by reddog1951