McConnell & Obama had slave owner descendants

Got a reference EL?
I would like to read that. Originally Posted by oeb11
https://freebeacon.com/politics/kama...-owned-slaves/
https://freebeacon.com/politics/kama...-owned-slaves/ Originally Posted by eccielover
During his election campaign, Obama made much of his mixed heritage in order to get white votes.
Once in office, he fell back on the same ol' race card style of divisive politics.
Mixed race candidates will just say that their white ancestors raped their black female ancestor so, they don't share the guilt of slavery.
Being of mixed Russian / Baltic ancestry, some of my ancestors were oppressing and beating my other ancestors.
Ain't history grand ?
  • oeb11
  • 07-11-2019, 07:57 PM
EL- thanks for the reference post.
dilbert firestorm's Avatar
It was banned within the british empire by the Slave Trade Act of 1807. The 1833 law expanded the 1807 ban to include British territories as well.

Britain was promising freedom as early as 1776, the year isn't coincidental, to any American slave who would fight for the Crown.

I would imagine a different outcome here had slave owners chose not to secede. No, I'm not trying to inferring the civil war was fought over slavery, relax you hillbillies. I'm simply suggesting compensation may have been brought to the negotiating table in an effort to avoid war. Lincoln himself, said he'd allow slavery to remain intact if it would save the union. It likely was brought up.

Lincoln won the presidency without carrying a single southern state. The tarriffs being imposed on southern goods to make northerners more competitive also didn't help the issue. Those two issues had a bigger influence than slavery on the decision to secede.

Slaves absolutely got a raw deal. Many black folks today could use a little help. I'm not sure if reparations, in the form of cash, is the way to go, however. Originally Posted by grean

you have to go back a little further. british abolitionist had a hard time getting slavery abolished. they were up against some very powerful and wealthy people with slave interest.


1806 is where the end of slavery begins. Foreign slave trade act 1806, sponsored by William Wilberforce, was responsible for destroying 80% of the British slave trade on foreign ships. Shipping by US or French ships were cheaper than English ships. many slave owning interests went bankrupt as they couldn't make money on expensive British shipping. It broke the back of the Slave owning class as they no longer had the funds to donate to the politicians in UK. It was a brilliant legislative move by William Wilberforce.

Guilt by ancestry. Guilt by historical "Racism"!
Originally Posted by oeb11
And, isn't that the basis for much of anti-semitism ? The notion that all Jews somehow carry blood guilt for the killing of Christ ?

Pretty much the opposite of MLK's assertion of people being judged by the content of their character.
  • oeb11
  • 07-12-2019, 10:03 AM
JG - completely inappropriate analogy!!!!
That was written about the LSM's outrage at McConnell over his ancestors actions more than 100 years ago.

While ignoring the same actions of Obama's ancestors
It was about MSM hypocrisy.



Nowhere was the argument about Anti-Semitism and Jews responsible for the crucifixion.

Even the Catholic Church has disavowed "Jewish Guilt" - it was the Romans that Crucified Christ as a ppolitical threat, although instigated by the Sanhedrin - the Jews did not have the ability to inflect capital punishment under the Romans.

That was a foul, and low blow false analogy.

You want anti-Semitism - look at the "Gang of Four" DPST's , and the leaders of theWomens' March - it is ingrained in the DPST party.

Part of the Hypocrisy of the DPST's is calling out their own Racism against Conservatives.

As far as the MLK quote - please send a reference. I am familiar with many of his Speeches.

I would be interested to see the quote substantiated.

Thank, You, JG