Crazy Constitution Question

Sex itself is very legal, and is protected on privacy grounds. See Lawrence v. Texas. But the S.C. distinguishes commercial activity from non-commercial activity, and so commercial sex (e.g., prostitution) may be subject to regulation in the same manner that commercial speech (e.g., advertisements, billboards, nude dancing) may be regulated. See Ohralik v. Ohio State Bar Ass'n. Originally Posted by Sarcastro
Per that case law "(b) The State does not lose its power to regulate commercial activity deemed harmful to the public simply because speech is a component of that activity. Pp. 455-456."

Regulate yes, but outlaw?
Sarcastro's Avatar
Regulate yes, but outlaw? Originally Posted by TxBrandy
Regulation can include criminal sanctions.
Fine. Criminal sanctions for advertising (soliciting) in a kids park. Criminal sanctions for forced labor (coercion). Criminal sanctions for the involvement of a minor (child labor). Criminal sanctions meant to protect the innocent and unwilling. But not two consenting adults making a private transaction when both are fully aware of their actions and the possible consequences of their actions (being the possibility of STD) and take necessary precaution against the above and spread of disease, etc.

I hope you do realize that I am not arguing, just debating for the sake of the debate :-)
ShysterJon's Avatar
If you wanted to attack the constitutionality of prostitution, then I would think your best line of attack would be the cases and reasoning that have invalidated criminalizing homosexuality and are now being used to argue that prohibition of gay marriage is unconstitutional. My con law is very rusty--I know it's based on the 14th amendment but not sure which clause(s) (due process? equal protection? privileges and immunities?). Originally Posted by Shackleton
The origin of a constitutional right to privacy is found in Griswold v. Connecticut, 381 U.S. 479 (1965), the case that struck down a state prohibition on contraception for married couples. The Court (led by Justice Douglas) held that the First through the Eighth Amendments have "penumbras" (i.e., shadows) that create "zones of privacy" that come to life through the Ninth Amendment (which states, "The enumeration, in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."). Other Justices believed that the right to priacy stems from the First Amendment (made applicable to the states through the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment).

A convicted prostitute made the privacy argument in Tisdale v. State, 640 S.W.2d 409 (Tex. App.--San Antonio 1983, pet. ref.d). The court dismissed the argument out of hand, holding: "Answering the right of privacy argument, we hold that enactment of this statute to protect the health, safety and welfare of the population at large was clearly within the province and discretion of the legislature." Id. at 413-14.

Just an aside about the nature of this thread and what I see as the purpose of this forum: I know we all like to debate what the law should be but, in my opinion, this is not the place to do it. This forum exists, in my view, to provide a ready reference for providers and hobbyists to learn what the law IS, not to debate what the law SHOULD BE. (Note at the top of the forum is stated: "Post your legal questions here.") In this forum, we quote statutes and the opinions of courts interpreting those statutes so we can better gauge the risks of engaging in certain behaviors and avoid contact with LE. Making arguments on what the law should be certainly has its purpose, but that purpose is unrelated to the "what" of this forum -- it's more a "what if" purpose. At best, such arguments muddy the waters. At worst, they mislead the reader. I think such arguments belong elsewhere on this board, such as in one of the general discussion forums.
Just an aside about the nature of this thread and what I see as the purpose of this forum: I know we all like to debate what the law should be but, in my opinion, this is not the place to do it. This forum exists, in my view, to provide a ready reference for providers and hobbyists to learn what the law IS, not to debate what the law SHOULD BE. (Note at the top of the forum is stated: "Post your legal questions here.") In this forum, we quote statutes and the opinions of courts interpreting those statutes so we can better gauge the risks of engaging in certain behaviors and avoid contact with LE. Making arguments on what the law should be certainly has its purpose, but that purpose is unrelated to the "what" of this forum -- it's more a "what if" purpose. At best, such arguments muddy the waters. At worst, they mislead the reader. I think such arguments belong elsewhere on this board, such as in one of the general discussion forums. Originally Posted by ShysterJon
Sorry...
OK one more statement and then I'll shut up. In regards to the OP's question, this is an article I found (and then added to from my site) in regards to some of the constitutional questions (although it doesn't address 'free speech' per se). After going over it, I can say that I have a better understanding of this particular relationship.

http://tcaa.brandysbedroom.com/?p=3

(Apologies to Shyster but feel free to use the link if the subject comes up again :-) )