Two parts to your statement.
First it depends upon what groups of NAs you are talking about--a nomadic hunter/gatherer group like the Apache or Navajo often were, or a more agrarian group such as the Pueblo people. If I grow crops to feed my family I care very much about that plot of land.
Second, the concept of "private" would not always connect to an INDIVIDUAL, but ofthen to a family, clan, or village. This is true of sacred places, or communal farming lands, or hunting grounds. Just because they did not say, "This acre belongs to John Smith", they may well have the very equally valid concept of "This acre belongs to the Bear clan of the San Juan Pueblo". You had some of this same perspective in the French and Spanish land grants, where some land was given to a family.
I am not quite sure why you seem to think it is morally acceptable to take land from people whether it was held single or by a community. If you believe it was morally right, then you should by the same logic believe that if I have a bigger gun I can morally take your home. It really is the same thing in many cases. (Not all. E.g.: Manhattan)
Originally Posted by Old-T
I think this is a very good reply. It does appear that different groups have differing viewpoints on ownership of the lands, and so my previous statements were too broad and in retrospect seems off the mark.
It would appear that communal land ownership is the most universal concept that must have had wide acceptance, but individual ownership in the Western European model that I'm familiar with was not so prevalent.
Thanks for your reply.