Your OPINION. The 2nd Amendment is very non-specific.On the contrary, I know exactly what it means. The founding Fathers knew that an armed population would be a deterant to any future attempts by the Federal Government to resort back to the old systems of dictators, kings, emperors, despots, and others who saw themselves as "superior" to the individule citizen and had the right to subjugate them.
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
We can argue all day and night as to what gun rights, and to whom these rights, are granted by the 2nd Amendment. And after arguing all day and night we will probably not agree. The states cannot agree. The courts cannot agree. The 9 members of SCOTUS cannot agree. Yet YOU know EXACTLY what the 2nd Amendment states and how it MUST BE interpreted.
Give me a break. Originally Posted by SpeedRacerXXX
These men knew that in order to keep the freedoms that they had just won and placed in The Constitution, it would require a diligence expressed by the common citizen that was unheard of in most Governments of the time.
Hence, the Amendments, in this particular case, the 2d.