You’re correct that popular votes in the presidential elections have no real meaning. There’s about 6-7 states that are relevant. Which I suspect was never the founders intent either. But it’s the result our two party system has created.
Anyway as to the actual subject of this thread. Alabama decided they’d tell the courts screw you and keep drawing favorable districts. Since they aren’t racist down there (the Supreme Court said so in their prior decisions on things like affirmative action and particularly the voting rights act, and my Tiny says so as well), I suppose they had some other legitimate rationale for drawing lines as they did.
Regardless, the Supreme Court’s decision to allow the judge to redraw the map in accordance with minority representation 1) acknowledges silently that maybe racism still exists, 2) that some institutional racism still exists, and 3) the courts still have to take control where racist actions by institutions continue (such as the Bama legislature. Next will be Mississippi and Louisiana, maybe Arkansas. That’s as possible 3 likely Democratic congressman added in the next election.
Originally Posted by 1blackman1
About the bold text I highlighted, I suspect the gerrymandering in Alabama had nothing to do with racism. Rather its purpose was to give Republicans an unfair advantage. The people drawing the lines didn't give a rat's ass whether the population of a Democratic-voting community was 90% African American or 90% white intellectuals and liberal arts students. What was important was the voting preference and how the geographic area could be integrated into a Congressional district in a way that would dilute Democratic Party representation.
OK counselor, you're a lawyer and the rest of us aren't. Perhaps you could correct my misconceptions about gerrymanders and Congressional districts. Apparently the federal courts may intervene on the side of Democrats in Republican states like Alabama, provided it can be shown that Democratic voters, many of whom happen to be black, are disadvantaged. In other words, if a bogus argument about racism can be made. But they aren't allowed to intervene in states like Maryland and New Mexico where blue collar workers and others (i.e. Republicans) are disadvantaged. In Maryland, Democrats occupy 7 of 8 Congressional seats and in New Mexico, all three seats as a result of partisan gerrymanders.
I note that in New York the state courts had to intervene to prevent an extremely partisan gerrymander. The feds had nothing to do with it.
So, my questions, am I correct? Are federal courts only able to intervene if race is called into question? And do you think that's fair?
Btw, if we were arguing about gerrymanders that affect the results of local and state elections you'd probably have a stronger case. At the national level, on average through the years, each party's share of House seats hasn't varied that much from their share of total House popular vote. Also, contrary to what you wrote, I said nothing and know little about affirmative action and voting rights in Alabama.