A philosophical question: a hobbyist ‘retires’ from the hobby. But as with any vice, the hobby keeps nagging him, he keeps shopping and sure enough eventually he finds himself at an incall. But he doesn’t partake because they don’t have a condom and she doesn’t care, is willing to go bare, so he bails.
Is he still retired? As a person who had to ‘retire’ or ‘recover’ from certain things, I can certainly understand answering that question yes, that because the person didn’t actually engage in sexual activity he is still retired. However, in this case, I am leaning towards saying no, he isn’t, because shopping was done, an appearance was made, and but for a small detail the deed would have been as well. If I were comparing it to an alcoholic, I wouldn’t accuse the man of being drunk but I wouldn’t call him sober.
What do you think?