The major problem with that bogus little theory, zany, is that every major society in the 15th and 16th centuries utilized slave labor; including those in Africa. So, zany, how can less than 2% of the African slave trade coming to what would become these United States give these United States a leg-up on any and every other society of that period utilizing slave labor? 'Splain that little hole in your theory, zany. Originally Posted by I B Hankering
Sure my friend because explaining to you is like talking to a 2nd grader. I don't know the percentages and I certainly don't trust a word you say as I honestly consider you to be autistic in all sincerity. In all sincerity. However, perhaps it had everything to do with coming to a basically untapped resource in "America" and creating a society on the backs on slave labor whereas others just needed to work out the nuisances of an existing structure. ;-)