GOP election official in Philly denies any fraud and states that they tried to run down fraud allegations and found them unsubstantiated.
Originally Posted by 1blackman1
The bigger question in Penn. is, did the Gov. and then the Penn. SC, make an unconstitutional ruling by making a decision to alter election rules when that is the sole jurisdiction of the Legislature? What if the SC of the US rules ( I have the feeling they will take the easy way out and call it a moot point all things considered but they shouldn't ) says that none of the votes that came in after the election closed on election day, can be counted? Maybe it will not reach a threshold to change the outcome but that doesn't mean it isn't important to know that the election process in Penn. was constitutional or not.
You did make a point about fraud being a legal term which implies intent, but I ask myself, how does a Gov. probably with a law degree and the SC of Penn. not know what the constitution says about what they did? They didn't "intend" to make an unconstitutional ruling? Really? They were just ignorant of the law? Really?
I'm still waiting to hear how "if" a dead person voted, that wasn't fraud on somebodies part. At the end of this process, if nobody can prove a dead person voted as some Democrats are claiming, then and only then will I acknowledge that no fraud happened in the case of dead people voting but I think I'll wait for the courts to tell me that.