I think what you are getting at is - when is there a taxable event for the private equity fund managers? My guess is they would only be taxed when a firm in the PE fund's portfolio is sold at a profit/gain. And then it is only the fund managers who would be taxed at the higher (ordinary income) rate since it is compensation for services under their 2+20 fee structure. Nobody is talking about taxing the original investors (many of whom are tax-exempt pension funds or endowments anyway) at anything other than capital gain rates.
If the PE managers were taxed immediately on their share of gains before they are realized, it would be like taxing stock options BEFORE they are even exercised.
But I'm just thinking out loud here... we need a real tax expert like COG (cough, cough) to help us sort out your question. LOL -- good luck with getting him to give an informed, coherent answer to ANY tax-related question!
Originally Posted by lustylad
I agree, as I can't imagine anything short of realization (via outright sale or exchange) generating a tax liability. I know that some uber-progressives have, at times, tried to rally support for taxing unrealized gains. That might fly in Professor Piketty's fantasy world, but not elsewhere.
Another question that has come up from time to time involves cases where the manager invests some of his own capital alongside passive partners, rather than just work for fees and carried interest. After all, it's obviously appealing to see that the fund manager "eats his own cooking," so to speak. In such cases, it's expected that the manager would pay a blended rate (some cap gains tax at 23.8%; some income tax at 43.4%), according to the deal structure and determined sharing ratios.
Wasn't talking to you, Halfbright, and I'm not taking your bait here either. Tell us how equitable the income tax is.
Originally Posted by CuteOldGuy
No, but I was addressing you, Mr. Dunning-Kruger Poster Boy, since you made one of your typically clueless posts. When did I say anything that could reasonably be interpreted as a claim or insinuation that the income tax is "equitable." I simply noted the incongruity and ridiculousness of your statement.
You want to tax the rich? Go ahead. They'll find a way, or buy a way to beat the system every time. Remember, they own the Congress, not you.
Originally Posted by CuteOldGuy
Really? If we "own" the congress to anything like the extent you seem to believe, then why are we not able to get them to simply pass the FairTax, as you suggest, get rid of all other taxes, and reduce our tax liability to a tiny fraction of what it is now by redistributing almost the entirety of it downward to the less affluent? "Beating" the system, at least to such an extent as to drastically reduce one's tax burden, is a lot more problematical than you think. You would realize that if you had any understanding of how taxation actually works in the real world.
No corporation ever pays tax. The tax and compliance costs are all considered overhead and recouped in the price of the product or service they sell.
Originally Posted by CuteOldGuy
That's incorrect. The corporate tax burden is shared by a combination of capital (investors), employees, and customers.
Professor, since you are so highly credentialed in this field, would you mind treating the forum's readership to a brief primer on how this burden is shared, how views of the division thereof have changed over the last 50 years, and how it varies over time and across industries?
(Oops, sorry! I almost forgot. That gets into a topic which we refer to as
"tax incidence." Never mind!)
.