Supply-side economics has generally been interpreted to mean a belief system holding, among other things, that tax cuts generally result in more revenue, or at least limit revenue losses to the extent that the resultant increase in economic growth is a good bargain. As an unfortunate consequence, some politicians have a tendency to disingenuously claim that tax cutting is good policy always and everywhere, no matter the circumstances regarding the current fiscal position.
However, I think a couple of points should be made here:
The facts are as clear as the nose on your face. Not only has this bastard-child of an economic scheme been responsible for the bulk of the U.S. debt over the last three decades, which the vaunted defenders of the faith fail to even acknowledge, it has been responsible for the biggest upward redistribution of wealth in this country since the 1800s – the time of the great land barons.
Originally Posted by BigLouie
I am not a "vaunted defender of the faith." But how in the world did you come to the conclusion that anything done under the general rubric of "supply-side economics" has anything at all to do with the widening income inequality we've seen over the last few decades? Multiple rounds of tax-cutting since the early 1980s have
lessened the tax burden on the middle class, not increased it. And taxes on the wealthy have been
increased, not decreased, starting with the tax reform of 1986. (Here it's important to note that I said
wealthy, not just affluent.)
To wit:
http://finance.yahoo.com/taxes/artic...d=taxes-filing
Note this key excerpt:
The tax reform of 1986, meanwhile, wasn't designed to increase federal tax revenue. But that didn't mean that no one's taxes went up. Because the reform bill eliminated or reduced many tax breaks and shelters, high-income tax filers who previously paid little ended up with bigger tax bills.
"Some of these taxpayers were substantial contributors to the Republican Party and to the president's re-election campaign, and had direct access to the White House. Reagan rebuffed their pleas," wrote J. Roger Mentz, the Treasury assistant secretary for tax policy in 1986, in a Tax Notes commentary last year.
(End of excerpt.)
Reagan tripled the deficit- inflation rose, but I guess he gets a pass- also at the same period during Reagan's term UE rate went up and it didn't go down until 2nd term
Originally Posted by wellendowed1911
You might want to become better acquainted with the facts.
The reason Reagan "gets a pass" on inflation is that he didn't create it. It got badly out of control in the late '70s, and it was actually a Carter choice for Fed chair (Volcker in '79) that finally set the stage for the quashing of inflation. Reagan merely continued to let Volcker do his work -- tightening the money supply and causing a severe recession, but the action was necessary in order to crush inflation, which had more or less abated by 1983.
The reason that the unemployment rate went up (peaking in 1982) was the aforementioned action taken to crush inflation. By the second half of Reagan's
first term, the economy began growing rapidly and creating a large number of jobs.
Reagan's failure was that government spending still rose on his watch, although at a very much slower rate than over the last 10 years.
...Not only has this bastard-child of an economic scheme been responsible for the bulk of the U.S. debt over the last three decades...
Originally Posted by BigLouie
Completely wrong.
The
rapid rise in government spending is what's primarily responsible for the bulk of our large accumulation of debt.