And you're assuming, just as PD is, that someone black has traumatized her. WITH ZERO PROOF of that occurrence. Could just as well be that she was off the seen going all neo-nazi or her white clients have said unless she's NBA they won't keep seeing her or she could have a new beau that says whites only.
What we do know with no assumption needed is what she actually wrote.
Originally Posted by 1blackman1
Read what I said again.
Just a guess, but if she had no issues before now maybe she either had a very bad experience with a black client which caused her to leave for a while or possibly a bad experience in her personal life.
Originally Posted by pornodave69
I did not assume, I said "Just a guess." A guess is an estimation. An assumption is a proposition that is taken for granted, in other words, that is treated for the sake of a given discussion as if it were known to be true.
And I did not make up some kind of rationale for what she wrote from nothing. I simply pointed out her actual word uses. You on the other hand have assumed that someone has caused her harm, traumatized her and oh by the way, likely black man did it. You have nothing at all to base that on but you put that out there anyway, because, I suppose possibly in your mind,
the only way that a white woman who used to see black men but now doesn't and has began using pseudo-racist terminology in referencing them is because . . . a black man abused her. That is your logical leap. As I stated, there are many alternative and from my experience far more likely reasons that she may have "changed", most of them related to the actions of white men rather than black ones.
But I suppose we can have that discussion at another time.
Originally Posted by 1blackman1
"Many alternative reasons?" Really??? Because "she was off the seen (sic) going all neo-nazi or her white clients have said unless she's NBA they won't keep seeing her or she could have a new beau that says whites only" are logical possibilities why a woman who apparently never had an issue with race before suddenly starts using racial slurs in public and private conversations where none of these people would see those comments?
Someone who never had a problem with race before doesn't just go full blown racist unless some traumatic experience took place. That is a VERY logical GUESS. It's not the "the only (reason) why a white woman who used to see black men but now doesn't and has begun using pseudo-racist terminology" but it makes a lot more sense than a sudden conversion to neo-nazis or other scenarios.
"You people," is used to lump a whole culture into one derogatory and racist stereotype.
"You people," is offensive based solely on its premise.
Originally Posted by Max Steed
Not always. Depends on the context. No different than "y'all" or "you guys" in many cases. (See my "these people" reference above.) However, this doesn't have the appearance of that situation.