Men and women both engaged in the same occupation for the same employer working the same hours but earning different incomes has nothing to do with supply and demand.Let us look at this...
. Originally Posted by SpiceItUp
Say a male prostitute and a female prostitute work for the same agency, will not supply and demand drive what each can charge?
Before you say that is not relevant , remember what kind of board we are posting on and my exact point to Olivia about men making less than women in certain fields.
That was my point about people like Olivia crying about men keeping women down.
http://www.swifteconomics.com/2009/0...-the-wage-gap/
What we need to recognize is that having the same job, (or the same type of job, as these statistics are often based on), does not infer that one does the “same work” and should be paid equally. For example, there is a much greater demand for business professors than history professors, so business professors will be paid more. Furthermore, the longer someone’s had a job, the more they will usually get paid. And obviously, the more hours they put in, the more they will get paid. And when the position is paid by commission, any discrimination that occurs would be by the consumer, not the business-homosapiens who employ them.
Once we recognize these things, we can start to come to grips with what is actually happening. First, we cannot assume that men and women have the same career aspirations in the aggregate. Second, we have to look at what happens when men and women get married, namely, we must investigate the marital asymmetry hypothesis.