I had this discussion today - an old friend insists she isn't underwater. That since the apraisal district says her house is worth xxx, she thinks it is worth xxxx. However, she can't SELL it for xxx and given the number given by real estate professionals, she would be considered underwater.
I tried to explain its the same as my crappy diamond I bought at auction in November: its a $23,000 diamond, per the paperwork. I got it for $8,000. Can't sell it for a dime over $12,000. I'm taking it, but still - its no longer a $23,000 diamond - its now a 12 thousand dollar diamond.
Does the same hold for homes? How is the underwater name established?
ps - my understanding is that being underwater is not a requirement to the new program, but one of many independent of the others; yes?
Originally Posted by Sydneyb
Yeah, you are right relative to your friend. It is about fair market value or what you could actually sell for.
But when you see in the news the term "underwater" they are referring to mortgages not just being underwater on an asset.
That is, if you put down a substantial down payment or have lived in your home for awhile (assuming you didn't take out a 2nd/3rd mortgage) and benefited from some appreciation you likely aren't underwater on your mortgage, even if your home value has taken a recent hit.
The cleanest definition of an underwater mortgage is if you sold your house...had your HUD settlement statement that summarized who owed who what...and all costs in (including realtor commission), and at closing you have to write a check instead of getting a check, you are underwater.
The origin of the term comes from the notion of "drowning" or "in danger of drowning"