In a civil action blame is determined when there are multiple defendants. So do we remove anyone who's ancestors came to this country after the Civil War? Black, white, or anything? What about people of color (this is an important point) who were free prior to the Civil War? There was a major slave owner in Louisiana who was a former slave herself and owned hundreds of slaves when she died. Under which authority did the slavery occur? The first slaves into English controlled territory came in 1637 at Jamestown, VA. Prior to that there were many indentured servants (slaves with an expiration date). The Spanish had taken hundreds of thousands of slaves from the indigenous population since the early 16th century. (note the person of color comment now). Let's narrow our focus to the just the territory called the United States. From 1637 English law and English authority ran the country until 1776. The United States was not formed until 1781 and our constitution did not authorize slavery or recognize slavery other than the 3/5s rule about SLAVES, not freemen. Many states in the north did not recognize slavery though it was not codified legally. The only government organ to recognize slavery was the Confederacy from 1861 to 1865 (it was in their constitution). More on people of color; the Chinese immigrants were in many cases treated worse than slave because at least slaves had value whereas a "free" man or woman from China had no value except to themselves.
There is much more to this question but now I want to hear your comments and that even includes you know who.
