Because the Gov can't change the voting laws in violation of art 2 ( like whats happened in all the questioned states ) Originally Posted by rexdutchman
Categorically false. It has already been affirmed that states can, in fact, make their own individual election rules and regulations-- from decisions about early voting, absentee voting, etc. The only things that are controlled at a federal level is the date of the election itself.. and the date that the EC convenes. The rest is left to the states to decide. Otherwise, we wouldn't have all these issues where some states opted to have one voting location for 600k voters (Kentucky) and other states opted to close polling locations in predominantly urban areas (Ohio-- I spent time driving people in my neighborhood to the polls-- the old location was on the bus route, new location was not).
The issue in PA-- is that a judge decided to legislate from the bench and overturned what the legislature had already decided. That's going to be overturned most likely-- and is why they were ordered to segregate any ballots that arrived past the original deadline set by the PA State Legislature. The question is-- how many of the ballots fall under that order and would it even be enough.. seeing as about 30% of those late ballots.. are for Trump-- meaning he will also lose votes in any order that eliminates those ballots.