I think what LL is stating is that the original document did not contain The Bill Of Rights. They were added after the Founders believed the people needed guarantees limiting Government Power.
All Amendments carry the full weight of Law.
Originally Posted by Jackie S
That's why it was called "The Bill of Rights" ... and it was not for almost 100 years that "The Bill of Rights" was determined to be applicable to the States, which indicates that the document was not considered a "part" of the U.S. Constitution.
Please note that EatFido posted in terms of the "defining document" ... a history of the discussions reveals the distinction. There was only one "personal right" in the U.S. Constitution that arose from the principles in the Magna Carta and that was the right to a writ of habeas corpus.
The problem is when decades of writings lump the two documents together as one it ignores the basic beginnings of the two documents and their relative function.
The Constitution addressed the powers of the states through the "supremacy" clause and reserved other powers to the states. The Bill of Rights was interpreted to be applicable only to the Federal Government and not to the States, and had it been "incorporated" into the U.S. Constitution by "implication" as EatFido suggests, that would not have been the case ... it would have been applicable to state action as was the U.S. Constitution.
But that "begs the question" ... EatFido was posting about a "defining" document!